Pre-authorisation comes with a window, doesn’t it? The retailer gets X number of days to collect the pending (pre-authorised) funds. If they don’t collect it in time and the funds get put back into the account, how does the previous (now historical) pending window authorise any future charge?
Moreover, what’s to stop anyone this happens to from simply moving those returned funds from the account in question so Apple couldn’t take it even if they wanted to?
Feel like I’m missing something obvious here, but missing the pending payment window is a risky move for any retailer.