Circlar Motion

[Quboid]

Hello all,

Need some help on soem physics home work that has been keeping me up.
I can't find this one anywhere on he intnernet. here it is:

1. Can the angular velocity of an object be 0 while the angular acceleration is a non-zero? If yes what is the lineal equivalent to this situation. Give examples.

hopefully someone can figure this one out (I couldn't).

Thanks in advance.

 

[Leareth]

NO since acceleration is a measure of change in velocity over time.
Since you have zero change then zero accelaration
I may be wrong though. it has been 4 years since I touched Physics


Please learn to use spell check. that was painful to read through.

 

[Schnebar]

I think it can happen

the angular velocity is just if it is spinning

it could be not spinning and just accelerating

Like a ball dropping to the ground that doesn't spin.

Does that work?

edit: ohh didn't read that we were talking about angular acceleration also.

Hmm back to thinking

 

[mduser63]

I wrote out an answer then realized that it really isn't that hard of a question since it really only requires thinking (no particular knowledge of equations, etc) and you should be able to figure it out on your own. Hint: Think of a ball thrown straight up in the air.

 

[Quboid]

I wrote out an answer then realized that it really isn't that hard of a question since it really only requires thinking (no particular knowledge of equations, etc) and you should be able to figure it out on your own. Hint: Think of a ball thrown straight up in the air.

A ball thrown straight up in the air according to my understanding of physics pertains to free fall, and not circular motion. I wrote several answers to that question, I am just double checking with the peeps on MR. Thanks.

 

[kainjow]

I wish I could go back to studying motion. I am kept awake by trying to understand magnetic induction

 

[Quboid]

I wish I could go back to studying motion. I am kept awake by trying to understand magnetic induction

So you've already did motion. can you give that question a shot?

 

[John Jacob]

A ball thrown straight up in the air according to my understanding of physics pertains to free fall, and not circular motion. I wrote several answers to that question, I am just double checking with the peeps on MR. Thanks.

Free fall is only at a certain point after it starts coming back down. When it is thrown up, what happens? Think acceleration in the direction opposite the motion. And what happens when it reaches the top most point, just before it starts coming back down?

 

[Oblivious]

Nope. The angular acceleration of an object is equal to r x w(squared), where r is the radius and w (omega) is the angular velocity (angular velocity is also equal to v/r). So if omega is zero, then the angular acceleration is also zero.

Hope this helps.

 

[Quboid]

Nope. The angular acceleration of an object is equal to r x w(squared), where r is the radius and w (omega) is the angular velocity (angular velocity is also equal to v/r). So if omega is zero, then the angular acceleration is also zero.

Hope this helps.

I have a pendulum that says yes. If the pendulum is at rest (in the middle of a period), it's angular velocity (omega) is zero, how ever it still have an angle and so has a direction change a so has acceleration. It also has gravity acting on it at that point.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pendulum

 

[crackpip]

Nope. The angular acceleration of an object is equal to r x w(squared), where r is the radius and w (omega) is the angular velocity (angular velocity is also equal to v/r). So if omega is zero, then the angular acceleration is also zero.

Hope this helps.

That is the centripetal acceleration i.e. proportional to the force required to keep the particle in circular motion. The angular acceleration is defined as the change in angular velocity (v/r) divided by the interval of time. Restating the question you first posted: is it possible for the angular velocity to be changing even if, at a specific instance in time, the angular velocity is zero?

crackpip

P.S. looks like you got your answer, Quboid.

 

[Quboid]

That is the centripetal acceleration i.e. proportional to the force required to keep the particle in circular motion. The angular acceleration is defined as the change in angular velocity (v/r) divided by the interval of time. Restating the question you first posted: is it possible for the angular velocity to be changing even if, at a specific instance in time, the angular velocity is zero?

crackpip

P.S. looks like you got your answer, Quboid.

I sure did. thanks guys..