Absolutely.
I can only hope that your request is born of a desire to carry on the discussion from this point using the same spirit?
With that said, I Timothy 1:9-10 uses a Greek word
arsenokoitai which the KJV translates as "for them that defile themselves with mankind". The religious tolerance.org article correctly points out that this Greek word seems to have only been utilized by Paul. His first use of it occurs in I Corinthians 6:9.
http://www.gaychristian101.com/what-did-paul-mean-when-he-used-the-greek-word-arsenokoitai.html
There were many existing Greek and Latin words that Paul could have used, were his intent to condemn homosexuality, as shown here:
http://www.gaychristian101.com/what...-if-he-intended-to-condemn-homosexuality.html
He did not. He coined a new word- arsenokoitai. Why? What did it mean?? We can't do what we would normally do to better understand ancient Greek words - look to other writers and their writings for clarification - because none else seems to have used the word.
The article reminds us that other translators have interpreted this unique term in varying ways -
"them that defile themselves with mankind," King James Version, 21st Century King James Version, Tyndale's New Testament, & Rheims New Testament.
"those who are immoral with...boys," The Jerusalem Bible.
"practicing homosexuals" New American Bible.
There is also evidence from Philo - a contemporary of Paul's and a fellow Jewish scholar - that it refers to shrine prostitutes. This is, at the very least, an option worth consideration.
So, why coin a new word to condemn homosexuals when many existing words would have sufficed? To put it plainly, arsenokoitai is not clearly used anywhere to refer to homosexuals.
Thoughts?